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6/05/2009

CCNA 2 Chapter1-6

CHAPTER 1


  1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur? The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
  2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem? The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command
  3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.) The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command, An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
  4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.) The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame ; The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
  5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) VTY interface ; console interface ; privileged EXEC mode
  6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.) ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules ; Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot
  7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem? Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks
  8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.) packet switching; segmentation of broadcast domains ; selection of best path based on logical addressing
  9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.) If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1; If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1
  10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.) Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0 ; Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown ; Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
  11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router? The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
  12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.) destination IP address: 192.168.10.134 ; destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
  13. What is the outcome of entering these commands? sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
  14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup? load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
  15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.) decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header ; uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table ; encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
  16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use? cross-over
  17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.) Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network ; Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP
  18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.) the last restart method ; the configuration register settings ; the location from where the IOS loaded
  19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.) 1 ; 4
  20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.) TFTP server; Flash memory
  21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM? Router1# copy running-config startup-config
  22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file? NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
  23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface? the Layer 2 source and destination address

CHAPTER 2

  1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three) platform ; holdtime ; local interface
  2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network? In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
  3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following: No clock rate has been set.
  4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table? administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
  5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.) A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2 ; A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
  6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks? R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network? ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0
  8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24? 172.16.0.0/21
  9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network? It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.
  10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two). a modem ; a CSU/DSU device
  11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet? encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface
  12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief? Interface IP address
  13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown? By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
  14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.) It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP ; It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
  15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) ping ; traceroute ; show ip route
  16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available? The route is removed from the table.
  17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud? 192.1.1.0/25
  18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded? Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
  19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.) The destination network no longer exists ; A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
  20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link? The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
  21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet? WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
  22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.) A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0 ; B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

CHAPTER 3

  1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.) Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. ; Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
  2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2? R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP
  3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.) sends subnet mask information in routing updates ; allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
  4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router? show ip route
  5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing
  6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.) the network is using a hub and spoke topology ; the network is using a flat design
  7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
  8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols? they send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors
  9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols? shortest-path first calculations
  10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
  11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged ?The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
  12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.) EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.; OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric
  13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two). increased security ; the administrator maintains control over routing
  14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table: R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0 What can be concluded from this output?The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
  15. What will be the result of the following commands?A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".
  16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?The administrative distance of this route is 1.
  17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1? The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
  18. The following line of code is present in the routing table: O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1 What does the number 129 indicate in this output? The cost for this link has a value of 129.
  19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process? OSPF can be used between the routers.
  20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24? 3
  21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
  22. When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?lowest administrative distance

CHAPTER 4

  1. Which event will cause a triggered update?a route is installed in the routing table

  2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

  3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

  4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two)updates are broadcast at regular intervals broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

  5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?will send out an update if there is a failure of a link
  6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information. ; EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

  7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.
  8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.) RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA. ; Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

  9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information? Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
  10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?route poisoning
  11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
  12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)routing loops inconsistent traffic forwarding inconsistent routing table entries

  13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond? The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
  14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.) EIGRP only updates affected neighbors. EIGRP updates are partial.

  15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

  16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).RIPv1 EIGRP RIPv2

  17. What is a routing loop?a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

  18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)inconsistent routing tables incorrectly configured static routes
  19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?16

  20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

  21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?3


CHAPTER 5

  1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers? Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
  2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command. R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 0:00:30, Serial0/0 What is the value of the routing metric ? 3
  3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1? RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
  4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down? 155 seconds
  5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
  6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.) uses hop count as a metric ; considers a metric of 16 as infinity; calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm
  7. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol? 30
  8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B? The default-information originate command has been entered on A.
  9. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network? routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router
  10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables? All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
  11. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two). It is a distance vector routing protocol. ; The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.
  12. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process? RouterB(config)# no router rip
  13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two). R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] ; R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]
  14. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router? debug ip rip
  15. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command? There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
  16. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2? 10.0.0.0/8
  17. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem? RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.
  18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address? All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.
  19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy? only the gateway router
  20. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks? RouterB(config)# router rip RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0 RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0


CHAPTER 6

  1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address? 32
  2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks? 255.255.255.192
  3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network? IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
  4. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic. ? /27
  5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem? NAT is required for the host A network.
  6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts? 255.255.255.0
  7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address? This is a network address.
  8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.) is altered as packet is forwarded ; varies in length ; is used to forward packets
  9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary? 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
  10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong? 172.16.192.160
  11. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC? The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
  12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.) The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. ; The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
  13. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.) 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 ; 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
  14. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.) larger address space ; data types and classes of service ; authentication and encryption
  15. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask? binary ANDing
  16. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6? expanded addressing capabilities
  17. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.) 10.35.66.70 ; 192.168.99.5 ; 172.18.88.90
  18. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.) Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. ; IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
  19. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.) 172.16.4.155 /26 ; 172.16.4.193 /26 ; 172.16.4.207 /27
  20. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses? a network
  21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem? The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
  22. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.) servers ; network printers ; routers

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1 comment:

Silahkan Masukkan Saran Anda,,thanks :-)